« The New Barbarians | Main | Why Bishops Stopped Funding ACORN »
November 15, 2008
Baruch Attah
That's what I was writing, in Hebrew letters, on a notebook belonging to a Jewish colleague of mine, while we were waiting for the end of an interminable and unpleasant department meeting. He's a devout Jew, bemused and gratified by my attempts to learn Hebrew. But when I got to the word that should follow "Blessed are you," namely, the name of God, written but not pronounced, he whispered to me, "Don't write the name of God, don't write the name of God!" Unfortunately I couldn't hear him -- one of my other colleagues was talking -- and I wrote it anyway. "You know what this means," he said. "I can't throw this piece of paper away. I have to save it." Apparently there's a special receptacle, like a treasure chest, for pieces of paper, or cloth, or wood, or stone with the name of God written upon it. He'll have to take this sheet there. I told him I was sorry I had caused him the trouble.
This reverence for the name of God befits the general impression I get from trying to ABC my way through a chapter of the Hebrew bible every night, with the training wheels of English on the side. That is to say, it seems -- and I don't have much direct experience with the Hebrew to warrant this conclusion, which anybody at all interested might derive from far more reliable sources -- that the Hebrews long before the captivity had had a high and sacral view of their Scriptures, as the Greeks had a high view of Homer, treasuring every word, every phrase. It is why Genesis, which has some of the narrative structure of folk tale here and there, nevertheless does not read like a folk tale; it reads, in its cunning compression, its terseness and intriguing taciturnity, more like a blessing or a holy decree. Anybody who reads the Gilgamesh Epic can see at once that we've got the same thing as we have in one of Grimm's Fairy Tales. "Why have you left Uruk, O Gilgamesh, and why have you clothed yourself in skins? Why is your face the face of a man who has made a long journey?" "Why should I not have left Uruk, and why should I not have clothed myself in skins?" says Gilgamesh -- excuse me for spinning the narrative from memory. "Why should my face not be like the face of a man who has made a long journey? For Enkidu my friend, Enkidu my little brother, is dead." "Mirror, mirror, on the wall," says the evil queen, "who is the fairest of them all?" "You are, O queen," says the mirror -- until Snow White shows up.
That sort of thing is, for the most part, absent from Genesis. In other words, I'm struck not by any supposed primitivism -- but by what is, from the first, a deep meditation upon, and revelation of, the relationship of God with man. If one assumes that the words are just what they ought to be, and in just the right place, one finds gold. For example, Abraham has just dismissed his son Ishmael and his mother from the camp. Ishmael is still but a boy; the Hebrew word used for him, consistently, is "na'ar," which the KJV well translates as "lad". In the very next chapter, though, God calls Abraham to sacrifice his son Isaac; and then the word "son" with the attached possessive pronoun strikes like a death knell, again and again. God makes sure we know how high the stakes are. "Take your-son," he says, "your-beloved-one," that is, "whom you-love," "Isaac," and then "get thee to the land" -- and at this point we are expecting "that I will show you," repeating the promise made to Abram in the beginning, that caused him to leave Haran and travel those many hundreds of miles to a place he knew not. But that isn't how the sentence ends. So Abraham took Isaac his son, and some pack animals, and provisions, and two "ne'areiu," "lads." The word is repeated soon after, and the point is made with all the deftness of a master poet. Abraham has just dismissed a lad, Ishmael, and now he takes two lads to accompany him to Moriah, where he will sacrifice his son, and return with fewer lads than when he set out, missing the one lad for whom he would gladly have laid down his life.
All that is left, in case the scene is not excruciating enough, is for the sacred author to refer to Isaac as a lad. This he does, twice. The first time is when Abraham, with terrible nonchalance, says to his ne'areiu, "Stay here, while I and the na'ar we will walk up there, and we will worship-God, and we will return to you." And with every verb he uses, he alliterates on na'ar, because every verb is in the first person plural, and begins with the ne- prefix. We, we, we, he says, knowing that "we" will in fact not return, because when "we" worship, it will be at the cost of the lad's life.
So Abraham goes up to the mountain, and the words will not let us free; he has to bind Isaac his son, and stretches forth his hand to slay his son. But then the angel of the Lord cries out, "Abraham, Abraham!" And the old man replies just as he had done before, "Hinneni," "Behold-me," or "Here I am." "Lay not your hand," says the angel, "upon hanna'ar," upon the lad -- the boy, the son, the servant; and only at the end of the sentence does he repeat the words of the Lord when he first issued the command, "your-son, your-beloved."
Now I find all that to be perfect, and implying all manner of things about who is whose son, and who is whose servant; not to mention that the original is at once more tender and more terrible than a translation can be. LXX does a decent job at preserving the connections, rendering "servant" as pais (as in Latin puer, untranslatable in formal English when it is supposed to mean "servant"; closest to English jocular "lad" or "boy," as in "Let's go for it, boys!"), Ishmael as paidion, "little child" or "little boy," and Isaac as paidarion, "little boy". English strays farther away.
And then there's the New Testament. When we read that Joseph in a dream was instructed to take the paidion into Egypt, we hear it in English as "young child," and yet I wonder -- I wonder whether the Hebrew that the apostle had in mind was not the word for infant, yeledh, as of Moses in the wicker basket, but that same na'ar. Either one would work, of course.
Posted by Anthony Esolen at 03:10 PM | Permalink
TrackBack
TrackBack URL for this entry:
http://www.typepad.com/services/trackback/6a00d8341c5ee953ef010535f8170c970c
Listed below are links to weblogs that reference Baruch Attah:
Comments
Thanks for a very rewarding reflection. I think Abraham's remark "we will return" has to be understood in the light of the new covenant for which the sacrifice of Isaac is a foretelling. Hebrews tells us that Abraham believed God; in this instance, that if God required the sacrifice of the son of promise that he was well able to restore him to life to fulfill His promise. "We will return" is an expression of Abraham's confidence in God.
Posted by: Bill Daugherty | Nov 15, 2008 7:40:58 PM
Ok, but does Isaac come back down the mountain?
Just asking because that's the last we hear of Isaac and then Abraham seems to separate from Sarah. And there's a Rabbinic tradition that Isaac dies and is resurrected? I'm interested to know what the Hebrew suggests of the aftermath.
Hannah
Posted by: Hannah | Nov 15, 2008 10:18:27 PM
Hannah,
Honestly, I don't know what you are talking about. Read the relevant chapters in Genesis. He comes back down the mountain, grows up, marries Rebecca, begets Jacob and Esau, is tricked by Jacob into giving his blessing to him, etc.
Posted by: Tony Esolen | Nov 16, 2008 9:38:13 AM
>>He comes back down the mountain,
No, Hannah's right. Isaac is not explicitly said to come back down the mountain, and there is an old midrash to the effect that Isaac was slain, then the ram was offered, and then Isaac was raised up three days later.
As far as I know, it's in dispute as to whether the midrash predates or postdates the Gospel.
Along with the rest of the Akedah, it's a subject of many centuries of exegetical discourse.
Posted by: DGP | Nov 16, 2008 11:21:37 AM
Professor Esolen,
We discussed in Bible study, the very last line says:
19 Then Abraham returned to his servants, and they set off together for Beersheba. And Abraham stayed in Beersheba.
There's no mention of Isaac. Did they go their separate ways? And after that it's not clear if Sarah is still with him. He marries another woman, etc.
The Rabbinic tradition I think says he was resurrected after 3 days.
Hannah
Posted by: Hannah | Nov 16, 2008 11:24:38 AM
Sorry -- a little background research, and I recall it's three *years* later, not three days. (Folks nevertheless argue whether the three days of the Gospel are partially intended to mimic the three years of the Akedah, or the reverse.
Posted by: DGP | Nov 16, 2008 11:28:07 AM
This midrash must post-date the Gospels, else it would have been used, either by the Christians as a typos of Christ, or by the Jews to discount the uniqueness of Christ. In either case, the apologetic record seems strangely silent if such a tradition had in fact existed in the first century AD.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Nov 16, 2008 1:11:40 PM
>>This midrash must post-date the Gospels, else it would have been used, either by the Christians as a typos of Christ, or by the Jews to discount the uniqueness of Christ. In either case, the apologetic record seems strangely silent if such a tradition had in fact existed in the first century AD.
Possibly, but one can spin alternatives.
(a) Perhaps the "Hebrews" knew it, hence the 3-day interment, but the midrash never migrated into Greek Judaism. Subsequent to the Jewish wars, rabbis withheld the midrash from the public lest, like many LXX texts and 2nd-temple legends, it might drive more Hellenics into Christianity.
(b) Perhaps the midrash was localized or marginal, and didn't make it into mainstream rabbinic Judaism until well after the thorough alienation of Christianity.
(c) Perhaps the midrash was well known, but widely doubted, or suspect because of the other problematic elements of the Akedah, so no one on either side wanted to make much use of it.
(d) Perhaps the midrash was well known, and the connection was taken for granted by Jews and Jewish sympathizers, and neglected by others. Something similar occurred in the parallels between the Last Supper and the Sinai Covenant: The typology is obvious and intentional, if you stop to think about it, but many since the post-apostolic era simply do not do so, and so entirely miss the sacrificial quality of the Eucharist.
Posted by: DGP | Nov 16, 2008 3:12:01 PM
I'm sorry, Hannah -- you and Fr. Dave are right; the text does not explicitly say that Isaac returned with Abraham. I must say, you learn something new every day.
I think the text is quite clear that Abraham does not slay Isaac; that seems to be one of the lessons of the scene. This is a God, unlike the others, who has the right to require life, but who, unlike the others, does not rejoice in human sacrifice. The text in LXX suggests that Isaac is a boy. In that case it makes no sense to suppose that he is left alone on the mountain, nor does it seem odd to say that "Abraham returned to the young men," since, from the moment of the interrupted sacrifice on, Abraham is the focus of the scene. Sarah is said to have died, a few verses later, but we are not told how much time has transpired. It would also seem odd, given the Ishmael scene shortly before, to suppose that the younger Isaac is by now so much older than Ishmael (who was a boy, requiring assistance from his mother), that Isaac could survive alone on Mount Moriah, in the wilderness.
Posted by: Tony Esolen | Nov 16, 2008 4:50:02 PM
Excellent reflection. Made me recall how I was trying to relate the typology of this story to a class full of 7th- and 8th-grade Orthodox Sunday schoolers. The pictures painted by the story are so vivid, it was easy to get them to see what what was going on with this promised son, being offered up to God, accompanied by two lads, and made to carry the wood upon his back. I also tried to get them to picture the ram caught by his horns in the thicket... why such a detail? Awfully similar to a crown of thorns.
Midrashic tradition-- such a mixed bag in my own limited experience. We do have the witness of the writer of Hebrews that mentions Abraham's act of faith having something to do with knowing God could/would raise Isaac from the dead.
Posted by: Isaac Crabtree | Nov 16, 2008 5:40:04 PM
>>Midrashic tradition-- such a mixed bag in my own limited experience.
True, but midrash can yet be enormously important, especially insofar as they may have shaped the apostolic understanding of Jesus' life, ministry, passion and resurrection.
Posted by: DGP | Nov 16, 2008 9:03:41 PM
I think that Mr. Daughterty's comment reflects Hebrews 11:17-19, "17By faith Abraham, when he was tested, offered up Isaac, and he who had received the promises was in the act of offering up his only son, 18of whom it was said, "Through Isaac shall your offspring be named." 19He considered that God was able even to raise him from the dead, from which, figuratively speaking, he did receive him back."
Abraham said "we will return" because he trusted that even if he sacrificed Isaac, God's prior promise would still be fulfilled.
Posted by: Respectabiggle | Nov 17, 2008 8:05:33 AM
This past Saturday morning a Christian brother and I were haggling over the creation account in Genesis Chapters 1-3. One of his arguments against taking the OT too literally was the inadvertant mistakes in transcription and intentional or unintentional grammatical changes during translation over the centuries driven by particular religious/political agendas.
Your post reminds me of the depth of respect for and commitment to G-d's word that Hebrew transcribers had wrt OT texts. I have met faithful Jews with similar concern for the holiness and power of His name, either spoken or written.
It is men like him - and men like you that recognize his proclivity - that encourage me to believe G-d's thoughts are indeed faithfully transcribed as is humanly possible.
Grace and peace,
db
Posted by: Don | Nov 17, 2008 8:30:01 AM
I always had the impression that Sarah had died closer to the time (when Isaac was about 40) that Isaac married Rebekah. I'm going from memory here--but it says something like Isaac took Rebekah into his tent and was comforted for the loss of his mother. It didn't seem (to me) to make a lot of sense for Isaac to be still mourning if that had been in the distant (say 10 years or more) past.
Posted by: W.E.D. Godbold | Nov 17, 2008 8:36:30 AM
I don't have any examples to hand, but doesn't the OT often mention only the patriarch when it actually means the man and all his family and goods. That is, it will say something like "Then Jacob went up to Suchandsuch," when it obviously means Jacob and all his family? This would account for Isaac not being explicitly mentioned.
Besides which, the absence of Isaac being mentioned as coming down the mountain isn't so striking as the absence of the text saying anything about his father actually killing him. If he had done so, not mentioning it would seem pretty shocking.
Posted by: Bob | Nov 17, 2008 9:13:07 AM
Does anyone know exactly why modern religious Jews write "God" as "G_d?" I know they are imitating the tetragrammaton, but doesn't "God" more closely correspond to "Elohim" than to "YHWH?"
Posted by: James Kabala | Nov 17, 2008 11:20:41 AM
Re what Mr. Godbold said: For some time I have been perplexed by the issue of the ages of the patriarchs at various points in their lives. If I recall correctly, for example, if one goes through the text Ussher-style and works out the dates, we find things like Jacob's being over seventy years old when he started to work for Laban and met his future wives, which one would never expect otherwise. I have actually seen references to this as implausible put forward by skeptics. Does anyone have any helpful thoughts on the matter?
Posted by: James Kabala | Nov 17, 2008 11:35:35 AM
Some of you, including Prof. Esolen, have invoked a commonsensical interpretation of the Akedah. Yet midrash (nor in many cases patristic exegesis, for that matter) is not "the plain sense" of Scripture. Midrash, in particular, affords the teacher broad creative freedom. One does not extract the midrash from the text, but through midrash explores some avenue that sheds light on divine intentionality or ambiguity in the inspired texts. Therefore, arguing against it by explaining why one or another interpretation is more likely is to miss the point.
Posted by: DGP | Nov 17, 2008 11:37:30 AM
>>Does anyone know exactly why modern religious Jews write "God" as "G_d?" I know they are imitating the tetragrammaton, but doesn't "God" more closely correspond to "Elohim" than to "YHWH?"
Generally, Jews do *not* write the tetragrammaton, for reasons Prof. Esolen noted in his post. It is a pious observance never to destroy the written name, and never to write it frivolously. As a hedge against these blasphemies, they write out the tetragrammaton only under the rarest of circumstances; they never speak aloud its most likely pronunciation, preferring instead some deliberate corruption such as "Yahveh."
When not writing Hebrew, these regulations do not strictly apply, but some Jews like to preserve the pious habit by writing "G_d" instead of the English word.
Posted by: DGP | Nov 17, 2008 11:44:40 AM
>>>Does anyone know exactly why modern religious Jews write "God" as "G_d?" I know they are imitating the tetragrammaton, but doesn't "God" more closely correspond to "Elohim" than to "YHWH?"<<<
This has always bothered me, as God isn't God's name, just his job title.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Nov 17, 2008 11:54:21 AM
>>>I recall correctly, for example, if one goes through the text Ussher-style and works out the dates, we find things like Jacob's being over seventy years old when he started to work for Laban and met his future wives,<<<
Not really a problem, if you study the Bedouin, who live much the same life as the Patriarchs. They really don't keep track of their age, or their birthdays, and so you sometimes get really wild answers to the questions "How old are you?" and "When were you born?" On the other hand, they know their genealogy forwards and backwards, and can recite their family trees going back six generations and to several degrees of consanguinity. The ages in the Old Testament must therefore be understood in canonical terms, much like the "forty years in the wilderness", "forty days in the desert" and so forth--these are literary shorthand for "a long time". Similarly, when someone in Exodus or Genesis is said to have died in the "one hundred twentieth year of his age", it doesn't mean he was 120 (or perhaps 119), but that he was "really old"--maybe even as old as John McCain.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Nov 17, 2008 12:00:04 PM
>>>That is, it will say something like "Then Jacob went up to Suchandsuch," when it obviously means Jacob and all his family? <<<
Well, of course. Historians do this all the time, even with regard to modern events. Thus, I find myself writing things like, "Crossing the Libyan border, Rommel advanced towards the rail junction of El Alamein". I do not mean that Rommel jumped in a staff car all by himself and headed off towards Egypt, but that he led (usually metaphorically, but sometimes literally) Pazerarmee Afrika in an offensive against the British Eighth Army. When I write that Auchinleck stopped Rommel at the First Battle of Alamein, I do not mean they were physically shoving each other, either. As writers we tend not to restate the obvious.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Nov 17, 2008 12:04:19 PM
Stuart: I can accept things like that for Isaac and Jacob, but isn't it important for the story that Abraham be literally 100? And once we have one real age, don't they all have to be real ages?
DGP: I don't think you quite understood me. I knew all that. My point was that God is a different word, not a translation of YHWH.
I always (on the rare times I investigated the subject) found midrashim perplexing. I don't mean to offend any Jewish readers, but they often strike me as weird at best and outright grotesque as worst. This one in particular, if it were true, would ruin the story.
Posted by: James Kabala | Nov 17, 2008 3:55:57 PM
>>DGP: I don't think you quite understood me. I knew all that. My point was that God is a different word, not a translation of YHWH.
Perhaps you missed my conclusion: "Some Jews like to preserve the pious habit by writing 'G_d' instead of the English word." It's a deliberate affectation in order to maintain the atmosphere of observance even when not reading or writing in Hebrew.
N.b.: I do not mean "affectation" pejoratively.
Posted by: DGP | Nov 17, 2008 4:26:57 PM
>>>N.b.: I do not mean "affectation" pejoratively. <<<
I don't mind so much when it is done by observant Jews (one part of my mother's family), but I do think it affected in the pejorative sense when it is done by someone who only steps foot into a synagogue for weddings and bar Mitzvot, and whose idea of the Jewish Tradition is voting the straight Democratic ticket and going out for mu shu pork the minute the sun sets on Yom Kippur (the other half of my mother's family).
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Nov 17, 2008 6:06:11 PM
I agree it is not logical to write G-d. In English translations, "God" is used for Elohim, which is the word for a generic god, though it is also used for God. YHWH is translated as "the Lord." In giving commandments God often refers to himself as "the Lord your God," YHWH Elohechem. So logically Jews should write "the L-rd." But Jews don't use "the Lord" very much to refer to God in English. I don't know why that is. When Jews come to the word "YHWH" in reading Hebrew, they say "Adonai," which means "my master," or "my lord" in order not to pronounce the name. Or they say "haShem," which means "the name."
Posted by: Judy K. Warner | Nov 18, 2008 6:08:04 AM
>>So logically Jews should write "the L-rd."
Except that this title is already a self-conscious evasion of the sacred Name, so it is unnecessary to dilute it further by omitting the vowel in print.
"God," however, is commonly used in English as if it were a name instead of a title -- or at least, it might be so argued. It therefore comes functionally closer to the tetragrammaton than "Lord" or any other typical English locution for the divinity, save perhaps tetragrammatical (Is that a word?) constructions like "Yahweh" or "Jehovah."
Posted by: DGP | Nov 18, 2008 6:27:59 AM
I miss "Thou."
Addressing the Almighty Everlasting Thrice-Holy God of the Universe as "You" seems a bit informal.
But then, Jesus did tell us to call him Abba.
Posted by: Bull | Nov 18, 2008 7:46:32 AM
Why write G_d? Because if the mandate is not to write or pronounce God's Holy Name, then by refusing to fully write this secondary reference removes one yet another step from possible sin. Since “God” in particular is typically understood and used as a Name, by avoiding it, the writer avoids “even the hint of impropriety.”
We might consider this a form of supererogation, but I've always likened this to the gloss Eve gives on God's commandment concerning the Tree. Whether this thought originates from her or comes from Adam's transmission, it serves to distance the temptation and further reduce the likelihood of sin. As in, if you don't touch it, you certainly can't eat it.
And the LORD God commanded the man, "You are free to eat from any tree in the garden; but you must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, for when you eat of it you will surely die" (Genesis 2:16-17).
The woman said to the serpent, "We may eat fruit from the trees in the garden, but God did say, 'You must not eat fruit from the tree that is in the middle of the garden, and you must not touch it, or you will die' " (3:2-3).
Posted by: DBP+ | Nov 18, 2008 10:03:02 AM
"Thou" is the familiar form, equivalent to the French "tu".
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Nov 18, 2008 11:25:20 AM
Of course, it seems silly to avoid writing the word "god" when we invoke Him using that very word--even Jews. How many prayers begin "Blessed art Thou, O God. . .", not to mention "Hear, O Israel, the Lord is our God, the Lord is One"--yet, when it comes time to put down the prayer on paper, we are expected to write "Blessed art Thou, O G-d. . ."
Logical consistency? Not much here.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Nov 18, 2008 11:28:48 AM
Father Reardon has an interesting reflection related to this discussion.
http://ancientfaith.com/podcasts/podup/ponderings/monotheism_and_the_burning_bush
Posted by: Daniel D. De Haan | Nov 18, 2008 1:40:00 PM
I don't think that there is any cause to believe that God didn't know how old the patriarchs were.
Posted by: labrialumn | Nov 18, 2008 6:25:51 PM
>>I don't think that there is any cause to believe that God didn't know how old the patriarchs were.<<
But I think there's reason to believe that the psalms are poems, not science texts. In other words, I think there are genre of Biblical literature and cultures in which they were written (God can speak through all cultures), and thus must be read according to their genre and culture. The author of Genesis--Moses, by tradition--was an itinerant pastoralist, as was the Hebrew nation he was writing to. Ergo, he would write as an itinerant pastoralist.
Stuart's point about Bedouin culture and numeric age is well made. Whether it's correct or not is another matter entirely.
Posted by: Michael | Nov 19, 2008 12:15:46 AM
>>>I don't think that there is any cause to believe that God didn't know how old the patriarchs were.<<<
I'm not saying He didn't know. He's got a very complete database, as I understand. On the other hand, the Patriarchs themselves probably had little idea of how old they were and certainly the authors of the Pentateuch, writing at a minimum some 500 years later, most certainly did not know. They were setting into writing an oral tradition replete with all sorts of oral formulae. And no, the Pentateuch is not contemporaneous with Moses, though it contains lots of material that goes back to the Middle Bronze Age.
>>>Stuart's point about Bedouin culture and numeric age is well made. Whether it's correct or not is another matter entirely.<<<
Try Cyrus Gordon and Gary Rendsburg, "The Bible and the Ancient Near East",4th Edition, Norton (New York) 1997, p.111-112:
"In accepting the evidence of the genealogies and rejecting the year reckonings presented in the Bible, we base our conclusion on additional evience as well. Among the tribal Semites, such as the Arab nomads down to the present day, there is a great feeling for genealogy, and it is not unusual for an Arab to be able to recite the names of his ancestors for ten or fifteen generations covering several hundred years. Yet that nomadic Arab will not know how old he is. Tribal Semites have no birth certificates, and while they memorize genealogies, they keep no track of birthdays. Accordingly, when we choose between two conflicting chronological schemes for the Patriarchal Period, we are forced by the nature of that type of Semitic society to lean more on genealogies than on the reckoning in terms of years."
It should also be pointed out that the genealogical reckoning can be synchronized fairly well with external reference points such as Egyptian, Sumerian, Chaldean and Assyrian records where such exist, whereas the reckoning in years cannot. From this we have to conclude that the genealogical lists are accurate and authentic renderings of a strong oral tradition, whereas the ages are either estimates or poetic license (i.e., canonical numbers inserted to symbolize general periods of time or even just to fit the meter of the poetry.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Nov 19, 2008 6:21:23 AM
>>>Among the tribal Semites, such as the Arab nomads down to the present day, there is a great feeling for genealogy, and it is not unusual for an Arab to be able to recite the names of his ancestors for ten or fifteen generations covering several hundred years.<<<
Ayaan Hirsi Ali, in her account of her childhood in Somalia, tells of learning the names of her ancestors that far back from her grandmother. It was considered the most important knowledge for her to learn.
Posted by: Judy K. Warner | Nov 19, 2008 7:49:43 AM
>>>Ayaan Hirsi Ali, in her account of her childhood in Somalia, tells of learning the names of her ancestors that far back from her grandmother. It was considered the most important knowledge for her to learn.<<<
Well consider what this really means. If the histories of the Patriarchs were put down in writing some time between the reign of Solomon and of Josiah--that is, between the tenth and eighth centuries BC, and if we peg a generation at about 30 years, then the fourteen generations from the Babylonian Captivity to David equals 586 BC - 420 years = 1006 BC, which is just about the right date, from archaeology and other records. Them working backwards, the fourteen generations from David to Abraham puts us somewhere around 1430 BC, which is also just about right, based on the descriptions of marriage customs, contract law and other items described in Genesis when compared to those in contemporary Syrian documents. Move forward about 200 years, and we are right in the middle of the late Bronze Age collapse, which is also the right time frame for Exodus. Things only fall apart in the fourteen generations from the captivity to Jesus, which gets us only to 166 BC, unless Matthew actually was counting from the return to the birth of Jesus, in which case we get 538 BC plus 420 years, which is 118--close, but no cigar. It's a bit ironic that the schema breaks down only during that time that Israel had decent written records. On the other hand, it may be that Matthew fudged a little at the end in order to get the typos that he wanted, three sets of fourteen generations as an indication of divine symmetry.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Nov 19, 2008 8:33:27 AM
Stuart, I've heard that the genealogies can actually skip people. I haven't verified this myself, but I've listened to knowledgeable people talk about how two genealogies (from different books of the Bible) will have mostly the same but some different people (and it isn't, apparently, a matter of different names). So being a few hundred years off from such reckoning isn't inconceivable. Apparently you could get away with some picking and choosing when constructing these.
Posted by: W.E.D. Godbold | Nov 19, 2008 9:41:23 AM
There is also the matter of disputed genealogies and parallel genealogies from different sources. Nowhere is this more apparent than in analysis of late Romano-British kingdoms, where several bardic sources differ over one or more names in the lines of succession. This can be due to political considerations (the new king lacks legitimacy, so wants to invent a link to some previous king through an obscure relation), but often to something more mundane, like an error in memorization of the list, or the fact that one person might be known by several different names (including titles that morph into names). It is a difficult problem to resolve.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Nov 19, 2008 11:31:48 AM








Recent Comments
Bloggers
Popular Threads
Archives
OLD ARCHIVES 2002-2004
From May 2002–December 2004, Mere Comments was published via Blogger.com. Every post is still available at the link above.
Member since 12/2004