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January 03, 2009
What Part of My Life is My Own?
Like Jim Kushiner, these last few days I've been thinking about the meaning of the Feast of the Circumcision, which is what it was called in the Catholic Church when I was a boy; now it is the solemnity of Mary, Mother of God, though the Gospel reading is the same. It's common wisdom that Luke wrote his Gospel to appeal specifically to the Gentiles, he being a Gentile himself accompanying Saint Paul on several of his missionary ventures. I don't doubt that common wisdom, but only note that if that was Luke's purpose, he could hardly have done anything more likely to rouse a wry look than to mention the circumcision of Jesus. Of course, it was well known everywhere in the Mediterranean world that Jews were circumcised (nor were they the only people who practiced it). That naturally provided Gentiles with an excuse for gymnasium jokes at the Jews' expense. So the Jewish boys in the days of the Seleucid kings, we're told in 1 Maccabees, made themselves little sheaths of sheepskin to hide their double nakedness when they were exercising. But the Lord never has favored man's desire to be independent of Him by being Just Like Everybody Else, and raised up Judah the Hammer to free the Jews from their Greek overlords and their very modern program of cultural homogenization -- rendering the Jews subject to Roman overlords in the process, but that is another story.
But I've been muddling about in my ABC's of Hebrew, and I've noticed something surprising. In Greek, the words for "circumcised" and "uncircumcised" have to do, as in Latin and in Latin's English derivatives, with the operation itself. That allows Saint Paul, in a moment of exasperation, to make things so clear that even the Galatians would understand: "All those fellows preaching circumcision -- they ought to have the whole thing cut off!" But it isn't the case in Hebrew.
The words are not coordinate. The word for "uncircumcised" is 'arel, not a negative at all. It means "possessing an 'orlah," or foreskin. Indeed, the ancient stem 'or gave rise to a group of words having to do with what is in front, exposed, laid bare: 'arah, "to be naked," 'orwah, nakedness or one's shameful part (or as I've heard in Appalachia, one's "pride"), 'or, "skin". So the use of the word 'orlah in Genesis 17, when the Lord makes the covenant with Abraham, reminds us of the lost nakedness of Adam and Eve in the garden, and of their shame after they had sinned, and of the nakedness of Noah after the flood, with Ham taking a sneering pleasure in the old man's shame. One of the meanings of the act, then, seems to be that we are not to be brazen before the Lord. It is not only that our members of generation, by which we participate in his creation of mankind, are to be consecrated to him. It is our acknowledgment that we, like Adam, are sinners, who need to be divested of our naked pride if we are to belong to the people of God.
We must be mulim, or circumcised; the word has nothing to do with the everyday verb for cutting (though it may be anciently related to words like malaq and malah, to nip and to scrape; I have no idea, and the dictionary suggests no relation at all). That requirement for membership in God's people is so fundamental -- it is not simply a funny cultural ritual, like wearing an earring -- that it gives rise to the word for father-in-law, namely somebody who performs a circumcision: on the groom-to-be, that is. It also explains why David and the other great warriors cut off the skins of their fallen enemies: one way or the other, those who rose up in battle against God and His people would "belong" to them. How much more powerful it is, then, when Jeremiah cries out to the people of Judah to take away the foreskins of their hearts: a strange metaphor, that of the foreskinned heart. It combines at once the notion of a shameful, self-exposing, swaggering, foolish arrogance, and exclusion from God's people, even enmity against them, an embarrassing state of affairs which only God can perceive.
So then Jesus is circumcised -- who never needed to be ashamed. He submits, who was equal to God. He joins the people He made His own. He prepares Himself for the fight, a battle against evil and death which will strip him and lay him exposed to the mockery of the world. He suffered in the flesh, even as a child, because men would insist on keeping intact the pride of their hearts. In his battle to come, he would circumcise the many thousands of his enemies -- our brother and our mighty man of war, circumcising our hearts and making of us one people. What part, then, of my life or my will or my mind or my body is my own? This Feast answers the question. Not one square inch.
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He suffered in the flesh, even as a child, because men would insist on keeping intact the pride of their hearts.
Interesting analysis ...
This is certainly tangential, but I'm reminded me of the prideful tone I hear in modern anti-circumcisionists. The obsession with "intactness", the need to deny any health benefits even if established by medical study, the labeling of the ancient practice as "mutilation", etc.
Posted by: holmegm | Jan 3, 2009 1:25:09 PM
Beautiful meditation--read twice for best reception
Posted by: dmp | Jan 3, 2009 1:55:45 PM
The other half of the act is to prevent Israel from denying its patrimony and destiny. Once circumcised, it is impossible for a Jew to deny his Jewishness; the SS would not accept any man who was circumcised, even if of the purest Arian blood, because of the implicit bond of membership in God's chosen people. Conversely, whenever a gentile oppressor has wanted to destroy the Jews, his first move has been to prevent circumcision; this was the case with Antiochus Epiphanes and the Emperor Hadrian--and in both cases, Jews chose rebellion and possible death rather than comply.
On the other hand, while the Canaanites, the Phoenicians and the Phillistines (who were Greeks) did not circumcise, the Egyptians did--and apparently had since time immemorial. Which is why Moses' foreskin is so interesting: as an infant, either abandoned by his mother before the eighth day, or deliberately held back from circumcision so as to deny his nationality. But, having been rescued from the Nile by Pharoah's daughter, one wonders why she did not circumcise him. So Moses grows up a prince of Egypt, but neither Egyptian nor Israelite, until, at God's insistence, he is more or less hoodwinked into it by his wife. A curious story that raises more question than it answers/
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 3, 2009 4:16:26 PM
I always understood it was Moses' *son* who wasn't circumcised? His wife circumcised their son, showed Moses the bloody flint, and said to him, "You are a bridegroom of blood to me."
Posted by: Beth from TN | Jan 3, 2009 5:24:03 PM
Also, Tony, the Israelites did not merely cut off the, um, foreskins of their enemies (after all, their Egyptian enemies didn't have any to circumcise), they took the whole thing. This was common practice in Near Eastern warfare in the late Bronze/early Iron Age. Why, one might ask? Was it simple trophy-hunting, or some perverted psycho-sexual thing about exercising dominance over one's enemies? Maybe, but there is a much more pragmatic reason: this was how armies kept score. Enemy dead have two ears, two hands, two feet, heads (the kind on top of your shoulders) are too big and cumbersome. But a penis! Only one of those, and the guy who gives one up is very likely (as the Munchkins put it) "really and sincerely dead).
Thus, after a battle, the winners tidy up and collect tokens of the enemy dead. In some cases, rewards might be given to the soldiers or commanders who turn in the most, um, tokens. So it was both for propaganda (Saul has slain his thousands, and David his tens of thousands) and monetary reasons that soldiers engaged in this grisly practice. Interestingly, by the time of the divided monarchy, it seems to have passed out of fashion.
Now, by circumcising themselves, the israelites (and the Egyptians) created a distinctive feature which meant that (a) they could not hide their identity on the battlefield; and (b) that tokens taken from their bodies would be different from those of the majority of their enemies.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 3, 2009 5:32:40 PM
Um, abashed.
You are right. Exodus 4:24-26: Thus it came to pass on the way, at the inn, that the angel of the Lord met him and sought to kill him. The Zipporah took a sharp stone and cut off the foreskin of her son, and fell at his [the angel's] feet and said, "The flow of blood from my son's circumcision has stopped" So he departed from him, because she said, "The flow of blood from my son's circumcision has stopped". (LXX, Orthodox Study Bible)
(Note the difference in the wording of the LXX and the Masoretic texts.)
It is interesting that in the OSB there is no commentary at all about this passage, which, apparently, a lot of people find very difficult to understand. I admit it seems inserted almost at random, is told in a matter-of-fact, throwaway manner, and is not elaborated in the narrative, which then goes on to talk of Moses meeting Aaron in the desert.
Also note that the Bible implies that the People of Israel did not circumcise their sons during their wandering in the Wilderness, witness Joshua's reinstatement of the practice at Gilgal (Joshua 5:2-6:
At about this time, the Lord said to Joshua, "Make stone knives for yourself from a sharp rock, and sit down and circumcise the sons of Israel". So Joshua made sharp stone knives and and circumcised the sons of Israel at the place called the Hill of the Foreskins. In this manner, Joshua completely purified the sons of Israel, as many were born at any time along the way, and as many as were uncircumcised after they came out of Egypt. Joshua circumcised all of these.
There is a lot going on here that begs for explanation. Why did not Moses insist on the circumcision of the Israelite sons during their wanderings? Why did Joshua reinstate the practice at this precise moment? There are no answers forthcoming from Scripture, but we may deduce that the practice was not universal among the Israelites who came out of Egypt, and probably not among those tribes that had remained in Canaan and were assimilated after the return. It may be that circumcision was a Yahwist ritual, and that not all of the Israelites were Yahwists at this stage. It may also be that, coming into Canaan, a land populated by the uncircumcised (as opposed to Egypt, where circumcision was universal), Joshua used circumcision not only as a covenantal bond with God, but also as a means of enforcing a common group identity, a visible sign of "us" against "them", and that those who were assimilated into the tribes of Israel underwent circumcision as a mark of belonging.
The OSB does have commentary on this passage:
Circumcision was given first to Abraham after he was declared righteous before God through faith in the promise of the Gospel (GN 17:9-14). this was a sign for the Gentiles among whom he lived concerning the Gospel, which separated him and his household from them. The children born during Israel's sojourn in the desert had not need to be circumcised, because Israel did not live among the Gentiles during this time. But now Israel was again living among the Gentiles, therefore Joshua instituted a second law of circumcision (John of Damascus).
Circumcision is also a typos of baptism. For as circumcision cut off a useless member of the body, so baptism cuts off sinful desires and pleasures from one's life through the cross. We also sing ourselves with the cross to express our faith; however, we do not do this to separate ourselves from unbelievers among whom we live, but to separate ourselves from an unholy manner of life. We thus direct our lives with holy desires and faithfulness (John of Damascus).
Furthermore, Christ was circumcised to fulfill the Law of Moses; therefore circumcision is not contrary to baptism, because it was done away with in Christ. Moreover, when Jesus was baptized and the Holy Spirit descended upon Him, the Kingdom of God and the law of Christ were proclaimed from that time. Now we live a holy life through Him and before the world in which we live (John of Damascus).
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 3, 2009 6:02:52 PM
Reflecting on John Damascene's commentary on Joshua 5, I am struck by how his interpretation of Scripture is shaped by his own times and experience. Living in 8th century Damascus, under Muslim rule, John is very much aware that the Church is like Israel living among the Gentiles. And note that the Muslims, like the Jews, did circumcise. John does not merely say that circumcision is unnecessary, he says it has been done away with--he implies that is abolished as a practice for the People of God. John therefore turns the passage on its head to make a theological and pastoral point: Joshua reinstated circumcision so that the Israelites would be separated from the Gentiles. Christians abolish circumcision for the same reason, but John pointedly notes that they do not separate themselves from unbelievers, but from sinflul ways of life. Of course, the unbelievers live that sinful way of life, but it would not be politic to say so too overtly while living under Muslim domination.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 3, 2009 6:16:26 PM
"Um, abashed."
There's something comforting in knowing that on rare occasions, even Stuart nods! ;-)
Posted by: Bill R | Jan 3, 2009 7:22:09 PM
Stuart Koehl writes:
>>> heads (the kind on top of your shoulders) are too big and cumbersome. <<<
Somewhere in Hades, the shade of Tamerlane rolls its eyes and frowns in disbelief.
Posted by: Benighted Savage | Jan 4, 2009 10:15:40 AM
Tamerlane had the advantage of unlimited slave labor, and besides, he usually built his pyramids on the ashes of the cities he sacked, so he didn't have to move them very far.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 4, 2009 11:24:12 AM
Holmegm: I always thought the fact that St. Paul went to such lengths to save Gentiles from circumcision implied that the ceremony (even if it had also been done by the Egyptians and others) was meaningless and pointless apart from the sacred meaning it had under the old dispensation. Certainly it was unheard of among Christians from then until the late nineteenth century.
This is off topic, though, and I don't think mere Christian orthodoxy would come down on the either side of the issue, which should, I believe, be considered wholly from a practical and medical point of view.
Posted by: James Kabala | Jan 4, 2009 2:18:24 PM
Stuart Koehl writes:
>>> Tamerlane had the advantage of unlimited slave labor... <<< snip! >>>
Are you arguing that the Ancient Egyptians, along with other Near Eastern societies who practiced post-battle castration (like the Assyrians, I seem to remember), did *not* have access to unlimited (or lots and lots of) slave labor?
>>> ... and besides, he usually built his pyramids on the ashes of the cities he sacked, so he didn't have to move them very far. <<<
Well, how far did the armies of Ancient Isreal have to travel in order to count those they killed in a battle? If it's simply a matter of keeping score, and not taking trophies or prisoners of war (who are soon to become eunuchs), then why not take a literal "head count" after the dust settles on the battlefield?
I'm merely suggesting that a "pragmatic" reconstruction of this practice is very limited, and doesn't explain why another unique part of the body wasn't taken (the head, or the right- or left-hand for that matter) to prove to some ur-McNamara that the enemy had been engaged. An explanation that doesn't provide a symbolic component, especially when we're regarding a pastoral people who were quite familiar with the castration of livestock, seems, um, incomplete.
Posted by: Benighted Savage | Jan 4, 2009 5:41:48 PM
I can think of at least one practical consideration for the tally-wacker over the hand: No bone (so to speak) or cartilage to deal with. Just (1) pull-taut, (2) slice, and (3) boing.
Posted by: Bobby Neal Winters | Jan 4, 2009 8:05:24 PM
Maybe we should move away from such painful speculations and look towards the theological implications of circumcision, and what it means in the context of the Incarnation.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 5, 2009 6:39:05 AM
In defense of Stuart, it should be noted that Tamerlane's battles involved vastly more casualties than Israelite ones--80,000 dead after the taking of Bagdhad.
A gorgeous 13th C French illuminated Bible (published by Brazilier as OLD TESTAMENT MINATURES)delicately shows David offering Saul a pile of severed Philistine heads rather than foreskins.
But if people want to stay on message, we could open a discussion of that legendary relic, the Holy Prepuce. Anybody game?
Posted by: Sandra Miesel | Jan 5, 2009 10:35:42 AM
Stuart Koehl writes:
>>> Maybe we should move away from such painful speculations and look towards the theological implications of circumcision, and what it means in the context of the Incarnation. <<<
You're right. Well, if Jewish circumcision can be seen as a synecdoche of battlefield castration, then perhaps the symbolic context here is one that emphasizes not just possession (God owns me), but also humility (God "owns" me). Humility before God. Or, if humility is too weak a word: humiliation before God (who has conquered me and my people?). Of course, God doesn't directly do this to Jewish men. Jewish men circumcise other Jewish men, and this seems to add another layer of meaning that makes my head ache.
What this sort of speculation would mean in the context of the Incarnation, if anything, I couldn't begin to guess.
Posted by: Benighted Savage | Jan 5, 2009 12:15:50 PM
The shed blood of circumcision is a reminder of Man's sin (and it's location of so many of men's sins). In Christ's crucifixion and his continuing sacrifice in the Eucharist this price is paid. The connection with battlefield castration seems just another way in which human's have twisted God's means of grace. Demanding the sacrifice from a dead enemy of the field seems at odds with the spirit both of circumsion and Christ's death on the cross.
Posted by: Bobby Winters | Jan 5, 2009 1:25:27 PM
>>>The shed blood of circumcision is a reminder of Man's sin (and it's location of so many of men's sins). In Christ's crucifixion and his continuing sacrifice in the Eucharist this price is paid. <<<
To whom is the price paid?
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 5, 2009 2:45:59 PM
>>To whom is the price paid?<<
Given that question, probably a poor choice of words on my part. They came out of that phrase book I stored up having listened to so many Baptist preachers in my youth. Reminder to man. Because of Man's sin, an animal had to be killed to cover his nakedness. Man sinned; man was ashamed. As an act of mercy on Man, God took the animal's skin. No one was paid, but the death was necessary.
On the other hand, God had said on the day you eat the fruit you will die. Adam didn't die, so the animal died in Man's place as later Christ would. The animal died that day, so that Death entered the world because of Adam's sin. So in this case, it is a substitution rather than a payment.
It is perhaps more accurate to refer to blood as a cost rather than a price.
I am just making all of this up. Does it work?
Posted by: Bobby Winters | Jan 5, 2009 4:31:42 PM
I don't know. I was more concerned about how you viewed the key questions of Christianity: if Christ's blood is a ransom spilled for the many, to whom is the ransom being paid? And if the Eucharist is a recapitulation of that sacrifice, who is offering what to whom?
But I do agree with you to this extent: blood is the cost of human sin, yet it is also the price that was paid.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 5, 2009 4:55:13 PM
There is also the interesting perspective of Alexander Schmemann that sacrifice was not so much an attempt to propitiate God (or the gods), but a response to the profound human desire to share in the life and nature of God, through that most fundamental of human interactions, the shared meal. In almost all religions that practice blood sacrifice, including that of Temple Judaism, the sacrifice is not merely a dead carcass offered up, but a meal that is partaken by man in communion with God (or the gods). The animal is killed, its blood is poured out on the altar, the best parts are offered up as a burnt holocaust, and the remainder is cooked and shared at a communal banquet (this is the fact behind Paul's concern about Christians eating meat sacrificed to pagan gods--priests were the butchers, temples the butcher shops, of the day). Thus, sharing food with the god, they share in the life of the god, and are to some extent divinized themselves.
That there was a propitiary element, too, cannot be denied--but even here, the rules of hospitality would play out: a God who ate at your table would be a very bad guest indeed to turn on his host.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 5, 2009 5:01:14 PM
One thing that occurs to me is the teaching element of that original sacrifice. God could've made the clothing from dust as he had Adam, but he showed Adam a means of doing it for himself. Thus he clothed not only Adam but Adam's descendants, requiring blood each time.
Posted by: Bobby Winters | Jan 5, 2009 8:28:30 PM
In the nature of cutting the covenant, we look back to the covenant which God made with Abraham. God had Abraham cut the animals in two, and then at dusk, the Glory of God appeared as if a lamp, and passed between the halves of the cut animals.
The meaning is this: to break covenant is to break the covenant curse of death down upon you. To be as those butchered animals.
Thus with Jewish circumcision, that man's 'seed' must 'pass through' just as God did between the killed animals, thus all Jews, both men and women, had already passed through - nine months before they were born.
So also with marriage, the man passes through the torn maidenhead, the shed blood, binding himself in a covenant with the woman, and thus marriage can only be broken by death, as with all of the other covenants in blood.
Likewise, the animal skins for Adam and Eve, not to cover physical nakedness (and it was ghilly suits, not fig leaves that they had tried to fashion for themselves to hide from God), but as a covenant sign of the blood shed in their place.
This is foundational Biblical theology.
Posted by: labrialumn | Jan 5, 2009 9:36:29 PM
>>>So also with marriage, the man passes through the torn maidenhead, the shed blood, binding himself in a covenant with the woman, and thus marriage can only be broken by death, as with all of the other covenants in blood.<<<
No, as a true sacrament, marriage perdures in the divine kairos, and thus transcends death, which is why the ancient Church recognized only one sacramental marriage in a lifetime.
>>> (and it was ghilly suits, not fig leaves that they had tried to fashion for themselves to hide from God)<<<
Wherever did they get the burlap (or "hessian", as the Brits call it) from which to make them?
>>>This is foundational Biblical theology.<<<
At whose foundation did you learn it?
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 5, 2009 10:28:40 PM
The Word of God, Stuart the Snarky One.
Posted by: labrialumn | Jan 6, 2009 1:11:38 PM
"This is foundational Biblical theology"
Despite Stuart's snark, he has a point. That take on covenant may be foundational for Protestants of a certain type, but it's by no means foundational in a universal Christian sense.
Posted by: Rob G | Jan 6, 2009 3:28:35 PM
>>>So also with marriage, the man passes through the torn maidenhead, the shed blood, binding himself in a covenant with the woman, and thus marriage can only be broken by death, as with all of the other covenants in blood.<<<
What labrialumn says here about marriage is not only biblical theology, but fundamental covenant theology. The idea that blood seals a covenant making it permanent is biblical as well as extrabiblical, for this practice seems to be universal throughout ancient cultures.
In turn Christ in His humanity, establishing the new and everlasting covenant with the Father, was broken by the Father's will and bled, so that the beloved (Christ) may be filled with the Life of the Lover (the Father); as demonstrated 40 hours later in the resurrection. Such an intercourse between the Father and Christ sealed the covenant that was consented to in the Garden of Gethsemane. This covenantal and ontological union between Father and the risen humanity of the Son is everlasting, and allows for the third Person of God to descend to make us the children of such an intimate union between God and man.
Posted by: PJ | Jan 6, 2009 11:31:47 PM
>>>What labrialumn says here about marriage is not only biblical theology, but fundamental covenant theology. The idea that blood seals a covenant making it permanent is biblical as well as extrabiblical, for this practice seems to be universal throughout ancient cultures.<<<
Except that, through Christ's death upon the cross, blood sacrifice has been replaced by the bloodless, spiritual sacrifice of the Eucharist, and thus, in the Christian theology of marriage, there is no blood seal (Labriarum's demand for hymenal blood smacks more of Mediterranean machismo than of the theology of the Fathers), but rather the seal of the Eucharist, which is complete, final, and utterly sufficient. Eucharist is the sacrament of sacraments and the seal of all other sacraments, so the demand for blood--human or animal--has been superseded by the Blood of Christ.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 7, 2009 4:41:16 AM
>>>through Christ's death upon the cross, blood sacrifice has been replaced by the bloodless<<<
Christ's death upon the cross replaced blood sacrifices that would attempt to bring union between God and man. That's taken care of. But a covenant between a particular man and woman differs from this everlasting covenant between God and mankind.
Labriarum brings to mind a very important question when it comes to the marital covenant: Can a woman truly become one-flesh with one man in covenant relationship if she is already one-flesh with another man who is still alive by virtue of prior fornication?
This may sound like an archaic thought to a culture that has bought into an ontological dualism of body and soul (which contradicts Catholic anthropology) and a false understanding of sexual equality interpreted as "sameness", but the sex act by nature is a permanent act that incurs a permanent union on the level of nature, despite intentions or legalities, that can not be repudiated. It's no coincidence that in virtually all pre-modern societies non-virgin females were considered ineligible for marriage - not because they were bad or they sinned, but because of an intuitive notion that a covenant that includes a true one-flesh union can not occur if she is one-flesh with someone else.
Although the blood-stained sheet may be insulting because of the questioning of a spouse's veracity, this almost universal understanding of human nature up unitil contemporary times, which admittedly is not now reflected in canon law, should not be brushed aside lightly.
Posted by: PJ | Jan 8, 2009 5:02:34 PM
>>But a covenant between a particular man and woman differs from this everlasting covenant between God and mankind.<<
What makes you say this?
Posted by: Bobby Neal Winters | Jan 8, 2009 5:49:59 PM
PJ's commentary strikes a personal chord in me. A few months ago, when talking about our mutual decision to wait--for we have established, yes, we are going to get married--I asked my girlfriend (fiancee?) if it bothered her that she was stronger than I was, that I am tempted just being near her*, and that I am afraid (I am still afraid) that in a moment of poor discipline, I will not care. And she deadpanned that if we agreed to wait, we would wait, and she would hold me to that, but that here she should tell me that she was not, in fact, a virgin.
I remember crying, literally, over that for days--not non-stop, obviously, but every once in a while it would just strike me. And yes, I know that man and woman become one flesh in marriage. And I know that sex has irrevocable biochemical consequences. And I told her flatly that there is a certain part of her that can never be mine, because she gave it to someone else.
And then I had a thought. God Himself is capable of anything, and if He is the proverbial glue that holds the marriage together, united in Him as we are in flesh, then of course it is possible--with His forgiveness--to be one flesh and one blood after the loss of virginity to another. There may not be a hymen to be broken, but do we consider the blood union (admittedly a sign of the covenant) to be above and beyond God's workings.
Say a woman is not a Christian, goes about her wild youth, and converts in her mid-twenties. She marries a man for life. She has confessed, repented and received absolution from the Almighty...yet no new hymen springs forth. (And that would be a miracle unto itself, quite separate from the miracle of forgiveness, I should think.) Are we going to call any and all such marriages in valid?
I put my faith in God, and in the professed faithfulness of two people, and to their genuine physical bond regardless of blood. Perhaps this is silly of me. Perhaps I am rationalizing something that is a genuine emotional stumbling block for me. But it is also a conclusion I reached based on my understanding of God's ability to truly make all things new.
*It should here be established that my girlfriend is the most beautiful woman in the world; the rest of you married gentlemen--I admire you all--had the bad luck of marrying before she was born.
Posted by: Michael | Jan 8, 2009 6:01:01 PM
If Christ says we must forgive our enemies seventy times seven and then again, how many times shall we forgive those who love us? Christ came to save the lost, and the Holy Spirit will always supply what is missing and make whole what is broken. As Christ said to those who would stone the woman taken in adultery, "Let ye who is without sin throw the first stone", and as he told the woman, "Go forth and sin no more".
There is not a man born who does not sin constantly, in thought and word and deed, yet Christ forgives all, and we must strive to match Him in his forgiveness and lovingkindness. Our lives are no different from that of the monk who described life in the monastery as "We fall and get up, fall and get up again".
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 8, 2009 6:23:42 PM
The covenant Christ consummated by His blood on the cross was between He and the Father, which brought about an ontological union between God and mankind; whereas a human marriage is a covenant between two humans - one man and one woman.
My observation: With every covenant, including these two, there is relationally a masculine and feminine principle involved, and the union between both brings about what could be called the tertiary principle, or the love between both of them. This simply illustrates that love is by nature triadic, reflecting the Trinitarian God. In the covenant between God and man Christ is the feminine principle while the Father is the masculine. The Father (masc) breaks the fem (Christ on the cross) in order to fill Him with His Life and effect that union. The result of this blood covenant/union is not only the glorified risen humanity of Christ, but the Church by the sending of the Holy Spirit. One could say the Church is the child, or tertiary principle, of this love between the Father and Christ.
Marriage also has a masculine and feminine principle. In this blood covenant also the masc breaks the fem in order to fill her with his life, effecting the ontological union of selves between them. This becoming one-flesh sometimes crates a third person, hence the triadic nature of love. But love/union is still present even when no child is created. The consummation is very important regarding the proper establishment of covenants.
So the New Covenant between God and man and the marriage covenant between one male and one female are numerically different, although they have essential similarities as being both covenants that are by nature trinitarian and permanent.
Posted by: PJ | Jan 8, 2009 6:34:57 PM
>>>The covenant Christ consummated by His blood on the cross was between He and the Father, which brought about an ontological union between God and mankind; whereas a human marriage is a covenant between two humans - one man and one woman.<<<
I have trouble understanding this, possibly because the mode of theological expression is unfamiliar to me. What precisely does it mean? Are you suggesting that there is a propitiary element to Christ's death on the cross, and if so, are you implying that the Father is demanding "satisfaction" of the Son? If so, that is not at all consistent with patristic soteriology, or the present theology of the Eastern Churches.
Your second line, too, just isn't consistent with the Eastern Christian theology of marriage, which is a covenant between man, woman and God. That is fundamentally different from the theology of the Latin Church, in which the couple are the ordinary ministers of the sacrament.
>>>The Father (masc) breaks the fem (Christ on the cross) in order to fill Him with His Life and effect that union. <<<
You do seem to be leaning towards that vicarious atonement idea, which makes me very uncomfortable. Also, how can Christ be the "feminine" principle of the covenant, if the consistent imagery of the Gospels and the Father is Christ as the Bridegroom, the Church as the Bride?
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 8, 2009 7:38:35 PM
>>>how can Christ be the "feminine" principle of the covenant, if the consistent imagery of the Gospels and the Father is Christ as the Bridegroom, the Church as the Bride?<<<
These are two distinct metaphors. The covenant between Christ and the Father was to fix what Adam broke, and bring about union between God and Christ (and all that will be in Him). In this sense God metaphorically "marries" Christ and we are the children.
The Christ/Church metaphor sees Christ as the masculine principle of the covenantal relationship permeating with His Life the Church which is the feminine principle. Such a union impregnates His bride the Church to give birth to the life of Chirst into the world, perhaps creating more converts.
Posted by: PJ | Jan 9, 2009 12:15:28 AM
>>These are two distinct metaphors. The covenant between Christ and the Father was to fix what Adam broke, and bring about union between God and Christ (and all that will be in Him). In this sense God metaphorically "marries" Christ and we are the children.<<
This reads like a denial of the Trinity if you ask me...
Posted by: Michael | Jan 9, 2009 3:16:56 AM
>>>These are two distinct metaphors. The covenant between Christ and the Father was to fix what Adam broke, and bring about union between God and Christ (and all that will be in Him). In this sense God metaphorically "marries" Christ and we are the children.<<<
This is quite heterodox, almost gnostic.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 9, 2009 4:36:34 AM
>>Our lives are no different from that of the monk who described life in the monastery as "We fall and get up, fall and get up again".
<<
Sounds almost like a line from Batman Begins. :)
Posted by: Bobby Winters | Jan 9, 2009 8:20:31 AM
Well, they do wear black robes.
Posted by: Stuart Koehl | Jan 9, 2009 9:02:43 AM
>>>This is quite heterodox, almost gnostic.<<<
When using analogous language it may sound heterodox, but here it only claims to explain the notion of union & creation between lover and beloved, which is the essence of covenant and of God Himself. The paradigm of Lover/Beloved/Love permeate all of creation, is made personal in the covenant, and has its source in the eternal Trinity.
Posted by: PJ | Jan 9, 2009 1:03:09 PM








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